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The 2024 Nobel prize for economics was awarded to Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A. Robinson for their work on demonstrating the relationship between pre-colonial conditions and current levels of development.

The conditions considered are of two types, firstly those related to habitability by European measured by settler mortality (Figure 3, Nobel report) and further by malaria and yellow fever incidence, and temperature and humidity conditions (Acemoglu, Johnson, and Robinson 2001). Secondly those related to prior development such as urbanisation in 1500 and population density in 1500 (Figure 1, Nobel report). With regard the latter, this is described as a systematic reversal of fortune, in that those that were more developed prior to colonisation ended up less developed today and having less inclusive political institutions.

From the Acemoglu, Johnson, and Robinson 2001 paper it appears this is limited to the colonies of the British, French, German, Spanish, Italian, Belgian, Dutch, and Portuguese.

If we consider how this applies to the colonies of the Russian empire and the Soviet Union the variation in settler mortality seems less pronounced, but the variation in prior development is very much present with the western countries such as the baltic states having high levels of prior development and the central asian states having much lower levels. In these cases the reversal of fortune appears not to have occured, with the baltic states still being richer than than the central asian states and having more inclusive political institutions.

However this is based purely on my very limited understanding of past and present conditions. Has this analysis been done rigorously in the manner of the papers linked by the Nobel committee?

References:

Scientific background to the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel 2024 (pdf)

Acemoglu, Daron, Simon Johnson, and James A. Robinson. 2001. “The Colonial Origins of Comparative Development: An Empirical Investigation.” American Economic Review 91 (5): 1369–1401. (pdf)

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    1) I think this is a question of economics, not politics. 2) The baltics were less colonies and more "holdings", whether Swedish or Russian with a brief fit of independence following the Russian Revolution until WW2. For example, Naples was rules by Aragon in the 1500s, but I don't think anyone thinks of it as a Spanish colony. Commented yesterday
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    @AdamMusch No. There is very much a political dimension to figuring out what politico/legal arrangements make nations work at an economic level. From the geographic determinism of Diamond's Guns, Germs and Steel to Why Nations Fail (by Acemoglu & Robinson) to The Mystery of Capital by DeSoto. Bad policies and bad economics synergize wonderfully (Brexit, Trump, Greece) and knowing more about the fundamentals driving that is very much on topic here. Commented 21 hours ago
  • I think if the question starts with "has anyone applied the methodologies of [the Riksbank Prize in Economics - ed]..." then the question is primarily one of economics, not politics. If the question has been "are the baltics and the former ssrs ending in -stan better considered colonies or former holdings of the USSR?" then that's more of a political question, although I'd even argue it's a historical question, not a political one. Because the original question assumes the baltics are colonies of the USSR, which I don't think they are. Commented 19 hours ago
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    The laureate works talks about the legacy of institutions after countries gained independence. How are the regions of Imperial Russia that became independent (really only Finland and – for a very short period – the Baltic states) comparable to the republics of the Soviet Union that became independent in 1990? And how are they comparable to the mostly overseas colonies of the Western European powers? Are the Viceroy of India, the Grand Duke of Finland and the Central Commitee of the Kasakh CP really in the same category of "colonial institutions"? Commented 19 hours ago
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    Central Asian states were actually very developed with hundreds if not thousands of years of history. Baltic states, pre-German colonization, were nothing of sorts. So, the time frame should be clarified, otherwise fortune reversal is pronounced. Commented 16 hours ago

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  • Malaria argument seems to be passing. Russian settlers became prevalent in Siberia (cold climate, no malaria) whereas they were always a minority in trans-Caucasus where malaria was endemic. Even today's Sochi area was settled relatively slow. I don't think malaria is the only factor here, but the argument checks out.

  • Fortune reversal also seems to be a thing. Central Asian states remain poor and trans-Caucasus not far ahead. This is despite multiple centuries if not millenia of the culture in that region. If we compare that to Baltic states, they were actually colonized by Baltic Germans. Then German nobility switched to Russian allegiance as a result of Russia winning wars in the region. As far as my understanding goes, Baltic people (and Finns for that matter) didn't have any serious urban culture before that. Cultural richness of Central Asian states is apparent to anyone who saw photos from Samarkand and Bukhara; whereas Tallin is a magnificent but distinctly European town.

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