Jesus says in Mtt 5:6( NKJV):
Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, For they shall be filled.
Of course, Jesus is using the terms 'Hunger' and 'Thirst' as metaphors for one's attitudes towards righteousness. As for their purely physical characteristics, they differ in so far as prompters, symptoms and remedies are concerned. Hunger and thirst are not just inborn; they are learned and emerge through development. Both can be triggered by internal deficiencies or external, psychological factors. Hunger is prompted by physical sensations (e.g., stomach contractions) but heavily influenced by external cues like the sight, smell, and taste of food. Thirst, from its side, is a more immediate, stable, and intense sensation than hunger, driven by osmoreceptors detecting fluid concentration( Courtesy: Google AI Overview).
Jesus went without food for forty days before his temptation( Lk 4:1-2), but would have definitely drunk water to satiate his thirst , failing which he would have died. On the Cross he expresses thirst(Jn 19:28),which many regard as the Lord's metaphorical thirst for the salvation of souls.
That said, would'nt either hunger or thirst in the form of a metaphor serve the purpose of picturising a passionate desire for righteousness ? No other Blessing of Beatitudes uses double metaphors. Why does Jesus apply both in Mtt 5:6 ? How do scholars explain the exemption ?
PS:BHSE question What is the spiritual difference between hungering and thirsting? (Matthew 5:6) does help. My question is on the need or otherwise of using both the metaphors for the same attribute. Hence, different.