My understanding is, as is commonly said, that women across the Common Law world were historically subjected to a legal regime called coverture.
What was the basis of this, or what was it based on?
Please note that while I am primarily interested in the situation in the common law world, if you are knowledgeable of such matters in other areas of the world and wish to adapt the question so as to offer an answer based on your own jurisdiction of expertise, please by all means do so!
To make it completely clear, I am looking for the historical-legal answer to the question of how jurists have framed this. That is not an opinion or ideologically based question, it is plainly one of historical fact(s).