8
$\begingroup$

I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $\ f(x)$ from $\ f(f(x))$

Suppose, $\ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $\ f(x)=x$ or $\ f(x)=\dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$
how to find these solutions..
I have found one.. $\ f(6) = \sqrt{222} $
Is this correct?

$\endgroup$
6
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2016 at 17:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2016 at 17:30
  • $\begingroup$ For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))\approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{\sqrt2}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2016 at 17:30
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/…. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2016 at 17:39
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ $f(6)=\sqrt{222}$ How do you find or guess this? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 6, 2022 at 7:48

2 Answers 2

13
$\begingroup$

Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=\pm x_1$. Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=\pm f(x)$ for all $x$.

Define $g\colon [0,\infty)\to [0,\infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$. For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$ And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|\pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$ as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x\ge 0$. Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=\begin{cases}g(x)&x\ge0\\g(-x)&x<0\end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$. We can find a lot of continuous $g$:

Pick $a_1\in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $n\ge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $\infty$. Now let $g_1\colon[0,a_1]\to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_n\colon [0,a_n]\to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0\le x\le a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}\colon [0,a_{n+1}]\to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=\begin{cases}g_n(x)&0\le x\le a_n\\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< x\le a_{n+1}\end{cases}$$ (noting that the two cases agree for $a_1\le x\le a_n$) and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_n\ge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.

Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, \ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.

$\endgroup$
-1
$\begingroup$

Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that

$f(6)=12.813735153397387$

and

$f(12.813735153397387)=37$

QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$

function f(x) {
  x<0 && (x=-x);
  return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}

It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-\infty<x<\infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.

I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.

Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation): https://jsconsole.com/

Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above: $f(x)=\begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\\x^{\sqrt{2}}&x\approx x+1\\\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}\end{cases}$

I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 11, 2018 at 15:49
  • $\begingroup$ What's specifically wrong with it? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 11, 2018 at 18:43
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Elaboration would be great! :) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 12, 2018 at 7:20
  • $\begingroup$ I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 12, 2018 at 7:49

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.