I'm aware that perhaps this proof has been analized and discussed a lot here but there's something that isn't clear to me from what I've been reading from Axler's text. How can we assert the equality of factorizations when we evaluate $z= T$ in $c(z - \lambda_1)\cdots(z - \lambda_m)$ to get $c(T - \lambda_1 I)\cdots(T - \lambda_m I)$? Because to me it seems that the fact that we have to add the identity to each term as to make it consistent changes the factorization altogether.
I know that $c(T - \lambda_1 I)\cdots(T - \lambda_m I)$ is an operator but it seems a bit forced that he is able to find the exact form we need to conclude the proof of the theorem just like that.
